I tested positive on the EIA with a value of 1.72. Positive is anything at or greater than 1.10 according to the lab.
But I was only reactive on IGG band 41 on the Western Blot, so my dr. says I do not have Lyme.
I know there is a lot of controversy about whether IGG band 41 means anything or whether it is specific for Lyme.
There is so much contradictory information online about the significance of being reactive on only band 41.
I told my dr. I had the bullseye rash back in the 90's when I was bitten the second time but he says that the rash is not specific for Lyme.
Any insight or advice? Thanks.
Posted by Tincup (Member # 5829) on :
Welcome to LymeNet Tina!
Your doctor seems to think he/she has all the answers, but from what you are telling me he/she hasn't a clue what they are talking about and could be considered dangerous.
1st, the rash is confirmatory. It means you have Lyme disease and it IS specific for Lyme.
2nd, Lyme tests have been proven to miss 74.9% of those who are infected. That is a fact.
If I were you I'd find another doctor ASAP. To assist with that...
If you go to www.MarylandLyme.org you will see a DOCTOR REFERRAL page on the menu to your left.