I've been trying to figure this out. Mainstream drs. tell me IGG Positive Results do not require treatment (doesn't matter if there are symptoms or not). They say it only means you had an infection in the past & successfully fought it.
I heard a story on the Associated Press today about a man with TB who is being quarantined(sp) at a hospital in Atlanta.
He has a drug-resistant strain of TB.
I then heard a P.S. to this story. The dr. said it"s important to know that there is a latent form of TB. The person with this has no symptoms, but he or she will go on to develop TB.
Then the lightbulb went off. This is what is happening with lYME patients that have IGG positives. They may not have symptoms, but will at some point get Lyme disease.
So, this could explain why some of us only test positive on the IGG and not the IGM. We are a ticking timebomb waiting to happen.
It also may explain why my LLMD told me once he starts treating with antibiotics he cannot use Western Blots to see where we are at with treatment. That is when he relies on the CD57.
Here is a link to a dr. answering a question about latent TB. (I cannot find the Assoc. Press, P.S. to their original story--but I did hear it on the radio.)
I just realized the Link was different from the paragraphs following it in your post. I am in the middle of reading the link from Dr. C. right now.
It"s tough trying to reconcile the views of mainstream drs. They should be able to understand the significance of even one positive band that is Lyme specific on the Western BLot.
My point about the latent TB is that there are other illnesses that show "latent" infection, but they are still treated with antibiotics AND they are treated for a long time.
What am I missing? How can the mainstream drs. and IDSA people continue to deny such significant evidence? How is the IDSA able to convince intelligent, thinking drs. that a positive Western Blot doesn"t warrant treatment?