susank
Frequent Contributor (1K+ posts)
Member # 22150
posted
I still cannot make sense of the revised interpretation as of 2011. ----------- As stated: IGM <20 negative IGG <40 negative
IGM 20 or IGG 40 to 160 May or may not indicate active infection. In patients with previously high titers, such titers indicate resolving infection.
IGM or IGG >160 Suggests active infection with B. Henselae. ***Titers rise during the first 2 to 4 weeks of illness and decline over 6 to 12 months***.
*** mine to highlight ----------
I wish Igenex had separated the interpretation for IGM vs IGG.
It is understood that most illnesses the IGM decline or disappear after weeks or within a few months.
What about IGG? Who knows if anyone had previously high titers by the time they first test?
*** The "rise and decline" interpretion makes sense for IGM. But I don't think so for IGG.
So what is one to think of a result of: IGM <20 and IGG 40?
Since 2011 how many here have gotten a result of IGG 40? How many with IGG higher than 40?
-------------------- Pos.Bb culture 2012 Labcorp - no bands ever Igenex - Neg. 4 times With overall bands: IGM 18,28,41,66 IND: 23-25,34,39 IGG 41,58 IND: 39 Bart H IGG 40 Posts: 1613 | From Texas | Registered: Aug 2009
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posted
I got IGG 1:40 and was told its a low positive bc its right on the cutoff
Posts: 574 | From Out there somewhere | Registered: Jul 2010
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susank
Frequent Contributor (1K+ posts)
Member # 22150
posted
My questions are about Bart.
Since 2011 were the interpretations for the other co's revised? Seems like they had a different explanation/cut-off then Bart in the past.
Pre 2011 < or = 1:40 was said to be negative for Bart. on IGG.
-------------------- Pos.Bb culture 2012 Labcorp - no bands ever Igenex - Neg. 4 times With overall bands: IGM 18,28,41,66 IND: 23-25,34,39 IGG 41,58 IND: 39 Bart H IGG 40 Posts: 1613 | From Texas | Registered: Aug 2009
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