He has been having symptoms for about a year (but a year ago even I didn't know what I had). Most of his symptoms are faint compared to mine or less frequent than mine.
His worst symptom is his memory/thinking. It have gotten worse and is affecting his job now.
He has problems with exhaustion (no matter how much he sleeps, he's exhausted) for more than a year now. He's had some twitching lately and lots of sore throats and stiffness, also.
Other symptoms (that have not bothered him recently - as in the past 2 months or longer) are bone pain, muscle spasms, headaches, charlie horses, sinus problems, etc.
So, if it is sexually transmitted, is the protocol different?
The reason I ask is because he is only on ABX for less than a month. He is on nothing else - no supplements, nothing for yeast, etc.
Is this normal? Should his treatment with ABX be as if he had gotten Lyme by a tick bite? Or is it different and less is needed for sexual transmission?
[This message has been edited by JillF (edited 03 June 2005).]
In addition, I don't know if sexual and other transmission tends to pass on all the possible coinfections--viruses, etc.
And there are just huge differences in how the TBDs affect the body, based on genetic predisposition, other pathogens present, levels of heavy metals and other toxins.
I am much less sick than my husband. We suspect, but are not sure, that I contracted LD/Co from him rather than a tick bite.
The hubby and I have had very similar protocols. He simply responds more slowly adn seems more prone to relapse. In the long run we both seem to be getting where we need to go, though.
You always treat the partner also.
I guess considering that after at least a 5 yr infection, and I was only on 4.5 months of ABX (I still have symptoms, btw) , he would only be on ABX for 20 days.
Thanks for your input.
[This message has been edited by JillF (edited 03 June 2005).]
Yeast should be considered anytime someone is one abx. At the least, sugar and carbs should be reduced even for a short course of abx.