He has been having symptoms for about a year (but a year ago even I didn't know what I had). Most of his symptoms are faint compared to mine or less frequent than mine.

His worst symptom is his memory/thinking. It have gotten worse and is affecting his job now.

He has problems with exhaustion (no matter how much he sleeps, he's exhausted) for more than a year now. He's had some twitching lately and lots of sore throats and stiffness, also.

Other symptoms (that have not bothered him recently - as in the past 2 months or longer) are bone pain, muscle spasms, headaches, charlie horses, sinus problems, etc.

So, if it is sexually transmitted, is the protocol different?

The reason I ask is because he is only on ABX for less than a month. He is on nothing else - no supplements, nothing for yeast, etc.

Is this normal? Should his treatment with ABX be as if he had gotten Lyme by a tick bite? Or is it different and less is needed for sexual transmission?

In addition, I don't know if sexual and other transmission tends to pass on all the possible coinfections--viruses, etc.

And there are just huge differences in how the TBDs affect the body, based on genetic predisposition, other pathogens present, levels of heavy metals and other toxins.

I am much less sick than my husband. We suspect, but are not sure, that I contracted LD/Co from him rather than a tick bite.

I guess considering that after at least a 5 yr infection, and I was only on 4.5 months of ABX (I still have symptoms, btw) , he would only be on ABX for 20 days.

Thanks for your input.